17th November, 2021 | Curret Affairs MCQ | UPSC, PSC, SSC

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17th November 2021 Current Affairs MCQs 

Current Affairs MCQHistory MCQPolity MCQ Video Series


1) Consider the following statements about Retail Direct Scheme

1) Under this scheme small investors can now buy or sell government Bonds with the help of intermediaries
2) Rs. 10000 is the minimum amount for investment through Retail Direct platform in Govt. securities
3) Non-Resident retail investors are eligible to invest in Government Securities under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999

Which of the above is/are correct

a) Only 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All of the above

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : C

  1. InCorrect. Under the Retail Direct Scheme, small investors can now buy or sell government securities (G-Secs), or bonds, directly without having to go through an intermediary like a mutual fund.
  2. Correct. Rs. 10000 is the minimum amount for investment through Retail Direct platform in Govt. securities
  3. Correct. Non-Resident retail investors are eligible to invest in Government Securities under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999

In news: TH

The schemes were unveiled by the Prime Minister on November 12.

What is RBI Retail Direct Scheme?

Retail Direct Scheme is a one-stop solution to facilitate investment in government securities by individual investors directly in the primary market (auctions) and secondary market. Under this scheme, individual retail investors can open a Gilt Securities Account – “Retail Direct Gilt (RDG)” – account with RBI and buy and sell government securities through online portal https://rbiretaildirect.org.in

What kinds of government securities I can invest in through Retail Direct platform?

Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills), Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec), State Development Loans (SDLs), Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB).

Who can open a Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) account?

Any retail investor (i.e any individual) is allowed to open an RDG account. The person must have (i) Rupee savings bank account maintained in India, (ii) Permanent Account Number (PAN) issued by the Income Tax Department, (iii) any officially valid Document (OVD) for Know Your Customer (KYC) purpose, (iv) valid email id and (v) registered mobile number.

Non-Resident retail investors are eligible to invest in Government Securities under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

What is the minimum amount for investment through Retail Direct platform?S. No.Government securityMinimum investment amount/quantity (as on Nov 12, 2021)

1Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills)₹10,000

2Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec)₹10,000

3State Development Loans (SDLs)₹10,000

4Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB)One gram of gold

What is the maximum amount that one can invest in government securities?

For dated G-Sec, T-Bills and SDLs – The following limits apply if you purchase these securities through the non-competitive segment of primary auctions:

  1. No.Government securityMaximum investment amount/quantity (as on Nov 12, 2021)

1Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills)The aggregate allocation of all non-competitive bids will be restricted to a maximum of 5% of the aggregate nominal amount of the issue within the notified amount as specified by the Government of India, or any other percentage determined by RBI.

2Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec)₹2 crore (face value) per security per auction.

3State Development Loans (SDLs)1% of notified amount (face value) per auctionFor Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) – An individual may not subscribe to more than 4 kg of SGBs per fiscal year.

The annual ceiling will include bonds subscribed under different tranches during initial issuance by Government and those purchased from the Secondary Market.


2) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Methane

1) All the members of COP26 has jointly pledged to cut emissions of the greenhouse gas methane by 2030 by 30% compared with the 2020 levels.
2) India is the third largest emitter of methane

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : B

  1. Incorrect. The U.S. and the European Union have jointly pledged to cut emissions of the greenhouse gas methane by 2030 by 30% compared with the 2020 levels.
  2. Correct. India the third largest emitter of methane, primarily because of the size of its rural economyis and by virtue of having the largest cattle population

In news: TH

Senior scientists at the Indian Council of Medical Research have recommended that India shift from “traditional animal husbandry practices” and “urgently wean away from coal as its main source of energy”.

India, at Glasgow, was also among the countries that didn’t sign on a methane pledge.

The U.S. and the European Union have jointly pledged to cut emissions of the greenhouse gas methane by 2030 by 30% compared with the 2020 levels.

At least 90 countries have signed the Global Methane Pledge, with India and China abstaining so far.

India is the third largest emitter of methane, primarily because of the size of its rural economy and by virtue of having the largest cattle population. The methane pledge text however linked curbing emissions to curbs on ‘trade’ which was unpalatable to India.

Methane emissions

Cattle are significant sources of methane emissions when they expel the gas as part of their digestive process. The 2019 Livestock Census showed India’s cattle population at 193.46 million, and because their diet is primarily agricultural residues such as straw they produce up to twice as much methane than their industrialised country counterparts who are given green fodder and more digestible feed.

“Since 46% of all agricultural emissions in India are contributed by ruminants such as goats, sheep and cattle, India needs to move away from the traditional animal husbandry practices and invest in newer technologies that will improve animal breeding and rearing practices, use of good livestock feeds and implement proper manure management, all of which will contribute to the reduction of the GHG emissions,” says the policy brief authored by Dr. Leyanna Susan George and Dr Samiran Panda of the Division of Epidemiology and Communicable Diseases, ICMR.


3) Consider the following statements about Ordinance

1) Article 123 stating that the President’s satisfaction while promulgating an Ordinance was final and could not be questioned in any court on any ground
2) An Ordinance issued during a session of Parliament is considered invalid.
3) The Parliament has to approve the Ordinance in order to stay a law within six weeks of its reassembly

Which of the above is/are correct

a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 3
d) Only 2 and 3

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : D

  1. Incorrect. 38th Amendment Act inserted a new clause (4) in Article 123 stating that the President’s satisfaction while promulgating an Ordinance was final and could not be questioned in any court on any ground. however, the 44th Amendment to Indian Constitutionreversed it and made the President’s satisfaction to bring ordinance justiciable. it means The President’s authority to roll out ordinance is justifiable if intent is proved mala fide.
  2. Correct. An Ordinance issued during a session of Parliament is considered invalid.
  3. Correct. The Parliament has to approve the Ordinance in order to stay a law within six weeks of its reassembly. It ceases to exist if the parliament fails to act within six weeks of its reassembly.

In news: TH

Ordinance to extend services of CBI, ED chiefs: War of words breaks out between Trinamool MP, Union Minister

Ordinance Making Power Of The President – Constitutional Provisions

  • An Ordinance can beretroactive, which means it can be put into effect before it is adopted.
  • An Ordinance issued during a session of Parliament is considered invalid.
  • The Parliament has to approve the Ordinance in order to stay a law within six weeks of its reassembly. It ceases to exist if the parliament fails to act within six weeks of its reassembly.
  • Acts and laws that occur in accordance with the Ordinance remain in force until the expiration of its validity.
  • The President of India is one of the rarest leaders in the world with the power to issue ordinance.
  • The power to issue Ordinance cannot be seen as a substitute for the legislative power of the President.
  • The President’s authority to roll out ordinance is justifiable if intent is proved mala fide.
  • Ordinances can only be issued on matters for which theParliament of India is empowered to legislate.
  • The Fundamental rightsof citizens guaranteed by the Constitution of India cannot be crossed out through the Ordinance.
  • The order will also be considered null and void if both the houses of the parliament pass a resolution that disapproves of it.

Limitations To The Power

Limitations To The Power Ordinance Making Power Of The President

  • When legislature is not in session: Only when either of the houses of the Parliament is not in session then the President can only promulgate Ordinance.
  • Parliament should approve: Once an Ordinance has been passed, it must be passed by parliament within six weeks of the reassembling of the parliament.
  • Immediate action is needed:The President, although vested with the power to issue Ordinance, cannot do the same unless he is convinced that there are circumstances that require immediate action.
  • Non-discretionary:His power of ordinance-making is not a discretionary power, and he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister.

President’s Ability

Is The President’s Ability To Issue Ordinances Justiciable?

  • The 38th Amendment Act added a new Clause (4) to Article 123, which states that the President’s satisfaction with the issuance of the ordinance is final and cannot be appealed to the court for any reason.
  • However, the 44th amendment to the Indian Constitution canceled it and made the President’s satisfaction subject to judicial review, stating that the president’s powers could be challenged in court of law, if it is based on bad faith, corrupt motives, or has any malaise of intent.
  • He can make an ordinance only when he is satisfied that the circumstances make it necessary for him to take immediate action. In Cooper case, (1970), the Supreme Court held that the President’s satisfaction can be questioned in a court. Thus, the President’s satisfaction is justiciable on the ground of malafide. Further, in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the scope of Judicial Review was expanded and any action by the President taken without the relevant materials, would be considered to be in bad faith.


4) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Basava Award

1) It is an award conferred by Govt. of Andhra Pradesh
2) The award is presented on the basis of an individuals contribution for social reforms and social change and work for bringing about religious harmony.

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : B

1.Incorrect.  It is an award conferred by Govt. of Karnataka

2.Correct. The award is presented on the basis of an individuals contribution for social reforms and social change and work for bringing about religious harmony.

In news:

Renowned sarod maestro Pandit Rajeev Taranath will receive the prestigious Basavashree award conferred on him by the Basava Kendra of Sri Jagadguru Murugharajendra Bruhanmutt, Chitradurga, in Mysuru on Wednesday. The award conferred on the 89-year-old eminent musician is for the year 2019.

The Basava Puraskara is a national award. The award comprises Rs. 1 million, a memento and a citation.

In 2006, -former president APJ abdul kalamhas conferred with this award.


5) Sitmex Exercise is counducted between which of the following countries

1) India
2) Singapore
3) Thailand
4) Indonesia

Which of the above is/are correct

a) Only 1 2 and 3
b) Only 1 3 and 4
c) Only 2 3 and 4
d) All of the above

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : A

SITMEX is being conducted annually since 2019 with an aim to enhance mutual inter-operability and imbibing best practices between Indian Navy (IN), Royal Singapore navy (RSN) and Royal Thai Navy (RTN)

In news: PIB

NDIAN NAVY PARTICIPATES IN INDIA, SINGAPORE AND THAILAND TRILATERAL MARITIME EXERCISE ‘SITMEX’

SITMEX is being conducted annually since 2019 with an aim to enhance mutual inter-operability and imbibing best practices between Indian Navy (IN), RSN and RTN. The maiden edition of SITMEX was hosted by IN off Port Blair in September 2019. RSN hosted the second edition of the exercise in November 2020. The 2021 edition of the exercise is being hosted by RTN in Andaman Sea.


6) which article empowers the high court to issue writs for protection of fundamental Rights

a) Article 51
b) Article 226
c) Article 148
d) Article 32

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : B

Article 226 is enshrined under Chapter V of the Constitution. It empowers the High Courts to issue certain writs. Article 226 gives discretionary power to the High courts to issue direction

In news: TH

Constitutional courts can’t interfere with temple rituals: Supreme Court

Article 226 and relation with Article 32

  1. Article 226 of Constitution of India empowers every High Court to issue the writs.
  2. Article 32 is itself a fundamental right. Article 226 is not a fundamental right.
  3. The President of India cannot suspend Article 226 during the period of Emergency
  4. Article 226 is not a right as that of Article 32. The High Court may issue writs according to its discretionary power.
  5. Article 226 enables the High Court to issue orders to writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, quowarranto, to protect aggrieved and any other purpose.


7) Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT CORRECT about Indian Antarctic Programme

1) It started in 1981 when the first Indian expedition to Antarctica was made.
2) In 1983, India constructed its first Antarctic research base named Dakshin Gangotri
3) Dakshin Gangotri was superseded by India’s second research base in Antarctica named Bharti, which was built in 1989

a) Only 2
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 3
d) All of the above

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : C

1.Correct. It started in 1981 when the first Indian expedition to Antarctica was made.

2.Incorrect. In 1983, India constructed its first Antarctic research base named Dakshin Gangotri

3.Incorrect. Dakshin Gangotri  was superseded by India’s second research base in Antarctica named Maitri, which was built in 1989

In news: PIB

India launches the 41st Scientific Expedition to Antarctica

Indian Antarctic Program

The Indian Antarctic Program is a scientific research and exploration program under the NCPOR.

  • It started in 1981 when the first Indian expedition to Antarctica was made.
  • This program gained worldwide acceptance after India signed the Antarctic Treaty in 1983. Know more about the Antarctic Treaty in PIB dated Jan 8, 2020.
  • In 1983, India constructed its first Antarctic research base named Dakshin Gangotri (after the Dakshin Gangotri glacier).
  • It is located 2500 km from the South Pole.
  • It was abandoned after being submerged in ice in 1988 – 89 and decommissioned in 1990.
  • Currently, it is being used as a supply base and transit camp.
  • Dakshin Gangotri was superseded by India’s second research base in Antarctica named Maitri, which was built in 1989.
  • Maitri is on the Schirmacher Oasis.
  • It engages in research in the fields of earth sciences, biology, glaciology, meteorology, atmospheric sciences, communication, cold region engineering, medicine and human physiology.
  • It sources fresh water from a freshwater lake named Lake Priyadarshini nearby. The lake has been named after former PM Indira Gandhi. The lake is situated in the Schirmacher Oasis, which has more than 100 freshwater lakes.
  • Bharatiis the third research station commissioned by India. It was established in 2012.
  • Its mandate is to conduct research in the areas of oceanography and continental break-up. It also focuses on understanding the geological history of the Indian subcontinent.
  • With Bharati, India is one of the nine countries to have more than one research base in the Antarctic Circle.
  • It is located near Larsmann Hill.
  • The communication is through dedicated satellite channels providing connectivity for voice, video and data with the Indian mainland.
  • Bharati and Maitri are the two active Antarctic research stations India has.
  • So far, India has conducted 40 expeditions to the Antarctic region.
  • The members of the expedition are selected by the NCPOR and the Department of Ocean Development.
  • The selected people undergo intensive acclimatization training in the Himalayas after the required medical evaluation.
  • They are also given training in survival, firefighting, environmental ethics and working in a group.
  • One expedition can cost up to Rs.200 million.
  • Logistic support is provided by the Indian armed forces.
  • The program is bound by the provisions of the Antarctic Treaty System.

Himadri Research Station

Himadri is India’s first research station in the Arctic. It is located in Spitsbergen, Svalbard, Norway. It is situated at the International Arctic Research base, Ny-Ålesund. It is 1200 km from the North Pole. functions of the station include fjord dynamics monitoring and atmospheric research. Himadri conducts research on space weather, aerosol radiation, microbial communities, food-web dynamics, sedimentology, carbon recycling and glaciers.


8) Consider the following statements are correct about Eklavya Model Residential schools

1) It was started in the year 1997-98
2) It is a Government of India scheme for model residential school for Tribal children across India.

Which of the above is/are correct

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : C

1.Correct. EMRS started in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote areas in order to enable them to avail of opportunities in high and professional education courses and get employment in various sectors.

2.correct. It is a Government of India scheme for model residential school for Indian tribals (Scheduled Tribes, ST) across India.

In news: PIB

Prime Minister laid foundation stone of 50 new Eklavya Model Residential Schools on occasion of Janjatiya Gaurav Divas as part of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.

About Eklavya Model Residential Schools:

  • EMRS started in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote areas in order to enable them to avail of opportunities in high and professional education courses and get employment in various sectors.
  • Across the country, as per census 2011 figures, there are 564 such sub-districts out of which there is an EMRS in 102 sub-districts.
  • As per revised 2018 scheme, every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons, will have an EMRS by the year 2022.
  • These schools will be on par with Navodaya Vidyalayas and will have special facilities for preserving local art and culture besides providing training in sports and skill development.

 Objectives of EMRS:

  • Comprehensive physical, mental and socially relevant development of all students enrolled in each and every EMRS. Students will be empowered to be change agent, beginning in their school, in their homes, in their village and finally in a larger context.


9) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Hunar Haat

1) It is organized by Ministry of Skill Development
2) It is an exhibition of handicrafts and traditional products made by artisans from the Tribal communities.

a) Only 2
b) Only 1
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : D

1.Incorrect. It is Organised by ministry of minority affairs under “USTTAD” scheme at different parts of the country.

2.Incorrect. It is an exhibition of handicrafts and traditional products made by artisans from the minority communities.These Haat aim to provide market exposure and employment opportunities to artisans, craftsmen and traditional culinary experts.

In news: PIB

Union Minister for Minority Affairs Shri Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi inaugurates 33rd edition of “Hunar Haat” in New Delhi on 15th november.

Significance:

“Hunar Haat” have become a successful mission to provide employment and employment opportunities and national as well international markets for thousands of master artisans, craftsmen and culinary experts.

What is USTTAD SCHEME?

USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development) schemeaims to preserve heritage of traditional arts and crafts of minority communities and build capacity of traditional craftspersons and artisans and establish linkages of traditional skills with the global market.


10) Which of the following is the closest country from north Andaman island ?

a) Myanmar
b) Indonesia
c) Malaysia
d) Singapore

Click for Answer

Correct Answer is : A

In news: The Indian Express

Culture Ministry focuses on promotion of heritage sites on small islands

The Centre government is working on a systematic plan for overall development of heritage sites and monuments located on small islands to promote them to draw more tourists


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